M.C. Questions On Evidence Act for IPO exam

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Jul 31, 20110 comments

1. A voluntarily confession is admissible in evidence (CJS 2004)
(a) When made to a police officer (b) To Magistrate having competent jurisdiction
(c) To a village sarpanch with request to save him from police
(d) Where it leads to no discovery of facts and made to the police officer

2. The presumptions will vanish when
(a) The accused adduces evidence (b) The contrary is proved
(c) The accused entering into defence (d) None of these .

3. For proving execution of a registered will (CJS 2004)
(a) Be necessary to call at least two attesting witness
(b) Be necessary to call at least one attesting witness
(c) Not necessary to call any attesting witness
(d) Be necessary to call the registrar

4. Deepak accused of committing the offence of supplying arms, informs his lawyer Shweata, that he has committed the offence and wishes her to defend him. In these circumstances (DJS 08)
(a) Shweta is duty bound to inform the police
(b) Shweta is duty bound to inform the fact to the magistrate
(c) The communication is a privileged one and protected from disclosure
(d) The criminal court can, at the instance, compel Sweta to disclose the fact

5. The function of a court of justice is
(a) To ascertain the existence or non-existence of certain facts
(b) To apply the substantive law to ascertained facts
(c) Declare the rights and liability of parties (d) All the above

6. In relation to expressions defined in S. 3 of the Indian Evidence Act which of the following statement is not correct? (CJS 2004)
(a) Facts include not only physical facts but also psychological facts
(b) Court includes Arbitrators
(c) An inscription on a stone is a document
(d) A fact is said to be not proved when it is neither proved nor disapproved

7.Evidere means
(a) to show (b) to show clearly (c) ascertain (d) signify

8. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court has held that the investigating officer should be allowed to refer to the records of investigation
(a) State of Karnataka Vs. Yarappa Reddi (b) Mohammed Khalid Vs. State of West Bengal (c) Baburam Vs. State of U.P. (d) State of Rajasthan Vs. Omprakash

9.State of Maharashtra Vs Damu Gopinatah shinde (AIR 2000 SC 1691) explained the principle embodied in
(a) Dying Declaration (b) S.27 Recovery (c) Alibi (d) None of these.

10. Law of evidence is
(a) The lex situs
(b) The lex (leges) loci contractus (the law of the place when contract is entered into)
(c) The lex fori (the law of the place where the question arises)
(d) None of these

11.Oral testimony of a witness can be
(a) Wholly reliable (b) Wholly unreliable (c) Neither a. nor b. (d) Any of the above

12. Facts can be
(a) Psychological facts (b) Physical facts (c) Physical as well as psychological facts (d) Only b. and not a.
14. 114(b) presumption deals with
(a) possession of stolen properties
(b) evidence of accomplice
(c) judicial and official acts
(d) common course of business

15. Under S. 3 of the evidence Act, Fact in issue means
(a) Fact, existence or non-existence of which is not disputed by the parties
(b) Fact, existence or non-existence of which is disputed by the parties
(c) Fact, existence or non-existence of which is admitted by the parties
(d) All the above

16. Evidence under the Indian Evidence Act means and includes
(a) Primary evidence (b) Ocular and documentary evidence or both
(c) Primary and circumstantial Evidence (d) Documentary evidence

17. Law of evidence is
(a) Substantive law (b) Adjective law (c) Procedural law (d) All the above

18.The Indian Evidence Act came into force on the territory of Goa on
(a) 15.08.1972 (b) 01.06.1964 (c) 01.08.1872 (d) 01.01.1964

19.When the recovery of weapon does not attract Sec.27 of Evidence Act, the conduct of the accused will constitute evidence under section
(a) 7 (b) 8 (c) 9 (d) 10.

20. Admissions are (CJS 2004)
(a) Conclusive proof (b) May operate as estoppels,
(c) Always irrelevant (d) None of the above

21. Section 25 of Indian Evidence Act has no application in departmental proceedings. The statement is
(a) Fully correct (b) False (c) Partly correct (d) None of these

22. Indian Evidence Act is applicable to
(a) Judicial proceedings in courts (b) Proceedings before the arbitrator
(c) Proceedings before tribunals (d) All the above

23.The court may presume that a man who is in possession of stolen goods soon after theft is either a thief or has receive the goods knowing them to be stolen, unless he can account for his possession. This presumption is contained in section
(a) 114(a) (b) 114(b) (c) 114(c) (d) 114(d)

24.Something from which fact is issue are to be inferred is called
(a) Direct evidence (b) Circumstantial evidence
(c) Proof (d) None of these .

25.Unless non-access is proved, the presumption as to legitimacy of any child born during the continuance of a valid marriage between his mother and any man is (CJS 2004)
(a) Rebuttable presumption of Law (b) Presumption of fact
(c) Mixed presumption of law and fact (d) Irrebuttable presumption of law

26. The instruments by which the court is convinced of a fact is called
(a) Document (b) Evidence (c) Proof (d) Witness
27.The power of comparison of handwriting of finger print under section 73 lies with
(a) Investigating officer (b) Court (c) Either a. or b. (d) None of these

28. An accused can discharge his burden
(a) By adducing defence evidence (b) Contradicting prosecution witnesses
(c) Relying on improbabilities of the prosecution case (d) Any of the above.

29. Which of the following sections give a presumption that judicial and official acts have been regularly performed?
(a) 114(c) (b) 114(d) (c) 114(e) (d) 114(f)

30.Statements made by the conspirators after they are arrested
(a) Are admissible under section 10 of Evidence Act (b) Not admissible
(c) Depends on the facts of the case (d) None of these

Courtesy : Praveen kumar 

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